Are Standard Deviation based stops, one of the best stops?

Also, should one use 2x ATR? 3x? Only way to have confidence is to run a backtest. And then re-run everytime markets condition change. SDs are an autobacktest all the way. Everybody knows what 95% of the distribution means, 3x ATR, what does that mean? I haven't a clue
 
I guess the nice thing about SD is that its an 'auto backtest'. It immediately tells how it fits the past data, which gives you confidence that the stop is wide enough to stay out of the noise.
With ATR and other metrics, you got to do the backtest yourself. But even if you do it, if volatility changes, then you got to run the backtest again, otherwise you will have no confidence in it and might end up secong guessing it

Volatility (a particular measure of a standard deviation calculation) and Average True Range are both creatures of the very same price history, and are both equally responsive. If you want to prove this to yourself, tweak ATRs and Bollinger Bands for a bit.
 
If Stddev works visually, then that can be a plus. Likewise, ATR can be used for similar purposes, but will not work so well if you try to use it for curve-fitting, but rather as long distance stops based on price action potential (ie. long bars in consolidation).

Statistically, none of these are "superior" for price series, as price series are non-stationary growth/decay-series, thus hard to predict and quantify. But, it really depends on usage of these tools and as all empirical studies, hypothesis' based on observations.

You can even use EMA and WMA on true range (TR) in order to make them more responsive to recent price action. Multiplying works about the same, so will have similar "pseudo"-statistical properties.

They're good to experiment with as another tool in the toolbox.
 
I think some of you guys have so much experience to be going to forum for this kind of answer, doesn't anyone back test? Surely you all have tick data over several years, find out from winning trades where you can keep approx 90% winners and see how much price went against trade. Find out what kind of time of staying in trade before it goes south. IMHO this is best ways for finding optimum stops. And if doing long term stocks/commodities, can use percentages.
 
Something I haven't seen discussed yet (although I have just scanned the answers), is what does hitting the stop do to your account, and how big is this stop in relation to your average win? If you're going to take CL as the example, and you put your stop in an area that price didn't go to 95% of the time in the last 60 days, does this mean the stop is like $5 away? This would mean that its a stop that costs you 5k when hit. If your trading only ever captures a 50 cent move, and hence $500 profit, then this stop is huge. If you hit this stop once or twice in the course of 20 or 30 trades, man oh man, that will be bad.

So what is the stop in relation to the profit target? This is key.
 
So what is the stop in relation to the profit target? This is key.

Fair enough question, but the OP posed a σ versus ATR question.
With either metric, "shit [can] happen" -- but it's more of a {worthy} Kelly/Tharp question...



I have always relied on "42".....
 
Standard Deviation (SD) gets a bad rep because of people like Taleb and etc. But I'm starting to think SD makes a huge amount of sense when it comes to stop placement. Usually when you place a stop, you want to put it away from the "noise", so you only get hit if the price does something that is usual and it goes quite a bit against you.

So lets say you are trading Crude Oil and you have a bullish bias. You can put a stop at the extreme of 2 SDs away from the current price (and the SD is the 60 day SD). So your stop will be in a area that in the last 60 days, ~95% of the time it would not have been hit. If prices starts to come down and it reaches that 2 SD limit band and you get stopped out, the SD worked as expected. It alerted you about an unusual price movement and you were able to get out.

Does that mean that one levers up and think "There is a 95% chance I won't be stopped out", no, that would be misusing the SD. Its not telling you that at all, its telling you that in the last 60 days, 95% of the time, your stop would not have been hit. Using SD based stops tell you nothing about what kind of leverage one should use, position sizing, etc. The very things that anti-SD fundamentalists rage against

Why would a SD based stop be better than say an ATR based stop or some other volatility metric? Because SD are a lot more intuitive than ATRs, at least for people with finance backgrounds. ATRs or other vol metrics don't feel as natural. When something trades at more than 2 SDs than your entry, you know something is up. You know that in the past, that would only have happened 5% of the time, so therefore, something usual is going on. That makes it a lot easier for the trader to respect his stop, get out and live to fight another day.

But if you get hit on a different type of stop, you might not follow the stop, or even if you do, you might reenter the trade not much after because you still feel that you are right etc. Its hard for a trader to still feel that he is right if something moved 2 6-month SDs against him

Thoughts?

Tried it early in my career. Your thinking is nothing new. It worked out for awhile and made a nice profit. Then it blew up.

Stops are always tricky. I always found that there were a few trades that really messed up my P&L. The answer is simple, right, just go tighter with the stops. Once you got tighter, you stop out a lot of trades that end up winners.
 
I think some of you guys have so much experience to be going to forum for this kind of answer, doesn't anyone back test? Surely you all have tick data over several years, find out from winning trades where you can keep approx 90% winners and see how much price went against trade. Find out what kind of time of staying in trade before it goes south. IMHO this is best ways for finding optimum stops. And if doing long term stocks/commodities, can use percentages.

I don't think you should backtest the optimimum stop for the reasons I've already said.

GAT
 
I use both, and find both speak intuitively.

FWIW, if you put up a graph of volatility, you can tune an ATR to match it. It is, for me, an instructive process.

That is a very interesting technique. Some questions on the stability of this tuned parameter:

1) How long before it goes out of sync?
2) Does it go out of sync within a predictable duration?

The argument between ATR and SD is between the behavioral and mathematical view of the markets. I believe ATR has an imbedded psychological and implied volume component that most quants want to isolate from their market models.
 
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That is a very interesting technique. Some questions on the stability of this tuned parameter:

1) How long before it goes out of sync?
2) Does it go out of sync within a predictable duration?

The argument between ATR and SD is between the behavioral and mathematical view of the markets. I believe ATR has an imbedded psychological and implied volume component that most quants want to isolate from their market models.


Not sure what you mean by "out of sync" (whether σ out-of-sync with ATR, or whether σ & ATR out-of-sync with the underlying) but once the look-back is lined up, they will behave nearly identically. But for shorter duration, the ATR will tell you more clearly *what*just*happened* (so I favor it for weekly options).

As to whether either σ or ATR might go out-of-sync "with a predictable duration" (again, not sure of the question, but...), if you're writing of immediate price excursions beyond the σ or ATR envelope ("envelope" being constant or Bollinger[ed] and dynamic) -- they would do it in similar fashion -- the handy thing about σ over ATR is that connection back to a Gaussian (or LogNormal or Pareto or Weibull or roll-your-own) Distribution, and the probability distribution you can infer, AND THE NUMBERS that follow: "since my [stop] is 1.64 σs out from current price, then if the extant distribution holds going back over time, I should be able to count no more than 5 instances of price outside of this _x_ value, over 100 observations." That's something that's just not so meaningful in the shorter term, but if you're talking 100 hours, or 100 days, your use of σ really gets you somewhere. (My opinion.)

{The "holds over time" part lends use -- even *comfort* -- in using σ going forward, with the simple assumption that the past behavior ('variance' in this case) is representative of future behavior. This happy idea is represented in a bunch of the posts above. It also, though, shows a big fat *fiction* in so much of what we do: we depend on "I.I.D." -- independent and identical distributions -- meaning our dice cannot remember the previous outcome when we roll 'em again. "Ooops!" The market is *random*?!?!? Hardy-har-har-har.
"But I digress......"}
 
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