So with the following big IFs
1) IF the main issue is 6B of 1-year Italy + Spain bonds
2) IF they really had not touched a 1.3B line of credit on Oct 25 and drew it down thereafter
I don't see how they could actually have needed to "borrow" customer money to meet a short term liquidity crunch
The biggest losses they could be looking at on those bonds would be like 3%, which on 6B notional is 180M. Even if they got hit for an extra 5% for collateral or something when their credit got downgraded, that still means a liquidity demand of less than 500M, while they got 1.3B from the banks syndicating that credit line.
Since they need to pay back the 1.3B (if they are a going concern), then they might have been insolvent and regulators might indeed have needed to force them into bankruptcy, but they shouldn't have been illiquid and hence I can't see why they would need to deliberately dip into the customer accounts and all go to jail for it.
Liquidity wise, with the 1.3B from the line of credit and the "missing" 600M form customer accounts, there's almost 2B in short term funds versus the European debt position creating a demand for long single digit 100Ms.
All of this seems very consistent with the claim that the hole in their books was mostly about not counting 2B at JPM, with 600M of customer money in that 2B.
Of course, there could be some sort of massive 2B fraud thing happening but the headline stories about what's not that big a Euro debt position can't possibly explain things, so it seems more likely they were bankrupt more in the sense of "no money, no way to make money going forward" than in the sense of "we need 600M by tomorrow"
Thoughts?