Quote from hypostomus:
Well, take away a Jack point. If you had bought an expected bounce around 10:05 off of NQ's left channel, you would have had to "wash" (your pants, that is). That just happened to coincide with a wide range consolidation. Old Jack doesn't tell us that if price slides along a channel extreme for very long it will break out of the channel. I suppose a Jacker just sighs "Oh, well!" and redraws the channel. Why am I bothering to draw them, then? What ELSE have I got to do to keep me out of mischief while I'm in a great Anti-Jack trade?
I think you need to go back to square one because I saw nothing in your post about the P,V Boolean relation. Since Jack isn't here to explain, I'll quote a few of his teachings:
From http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=549286#post549286
If volume is increasing, then the trend will continue. This boolean statement is the source of all money making. It is not stated as one would expect. It is a maths statement from the Algebra of base 2 invented by George Boole in England.
From http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=825456#post825456
What TA is about for me is all based upon the P, V Boolean relation and a corrolary to take care of one point to complete it.
Side note: Jack KNOWS Boolean!
From http://www.elitetrader.com/vb/showthread.php?s=&postid=1078165#post1078165
I was one of very few people at IBM during the mainframe era that could trobleshoot 700 series mainframes from the console with out reference to the stacks of "D" size logic schematics. This means that FYI, I can readily convert any market activiety to Boolean expressions on the run.
So please explain why you think you have any chance of understanding the aforementioned price action without carefully considering the P,V Boolean relation?
