Please don't read too far into this post, especially the first paragraph. This is strictly a math question that I framed within an example.
I am reading a book in which the author describes someones expectations of turning 10000 into 15000 in 3 months- in essence a 3-mo return (quarterly) of 150% is nearly 1000% annually.
However I started to do the math and if I follow the ((1+rate)^no of periods )-1 * 100 I get approximately 3900%. If I just do simple compounding 10000* 1.5 = 15000 * 1.5 = 22500 =33750*1.5= $50625. That is 4 periods and then divide that by the original $10000 you get 500%.
It seems with period returns of less than 100% the above formula works, but not with greater.; or am I doing something wrong?
So I guess with period returns of greater than 100% how do you annulize those. And what is the correct answer to the example above.
I am reading a book in which the author describes someones expectations of turning 10000 into 15000 in 3 months- in essence a 3-mo return (quarterly) of 150% is nearly 1000% annually.
However I started to do the math and if I follow the ((1+rate)^no of periods )-1 * 100 I get approximately 3900%. If I just do simple compounding 10000* 1.5 = 15000 * 1.5 = 22500 =33750*1.5= $50625. That is 4 periods and then divide that by the original $10000 you get 500%.
It seems with period returns of less than 100% the above formula works, but not with greater.; or am I doing something wrong?
So I guess with period returns of greater than 100% how do you annulize those. And what is the correct answer to the example above.