I've been trading Options again and I'm getting unreal Delta to OTM Probability Ratios.
Call Side 0.3 Delta =0.85% OTM Probability
Put Side 0.3 Delta =0.55% OTM Probability
Both Sides had the same Implied Volatility.
How is this even possible? Is it because one Side gets purchased more? Shouldn't there be a Scew in IV too?
If this persists, Delta is useless to use in Backtesting.
EDIT: Ticker was AXSM

Call Side 0.3 Delta =0.85% OTM Probability
Put Side 0.3 Delta =0.55% OTM Probability
Both Sides had the same Implied Volatility.
How is this even possible? Is it because one Side gets purchased more? Shouldn't there be a Scew in IV too?
If this persists, Delta is useless to use in Backtesting.
EDIT: Ticker was AXSM

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