A strategy that only works on certain currencies?

Are you just assuming that 8x commissions is greater than all your real life costs combined or did you actually verify that this is true?

IB commission = 0.2bp => 8x commission = 1.6bp
The spread alone on some pairs can be multiples of that.
Financing costs can also be in the same order of magnitude.

Just guessing. Paper trading will tell me how right/wrong I am but the general idea would still apply.
 
Of that first set, I see an obvious link between the right-hand bars for 1-2-3, 4-5-6, and 7-8-9 -- but that's all I see. Nothing jumps at at me for which I might infer any link to the left-hand side -- whether the dark blue line, the light blue line, or their difference. :(

As far as the in-sequence similarities of the right-hand bars, my forex days bring to mind those pairs that move in-step with others, and without looking, I suspect that the groups you posted were specifically from those-that-move-together? :(

Sorry, Noobs. No help here.
 
Of that first set, I see an obvious link between the right-hand bars for 1-2-3, 4-5-6, and 7-8-9 -- but that's all I see. Nothing jumps at at me for which I might infer any link to the left-hand side -- whether the dark blue line, the light blue line, or their difference. :(

As far as the in-sequence similarities of the right-hand bars, my forex days bring to mind those pairs that move in-step with others, and without looking, I suspect that the groups you posted were specifically from those-that-move-together? :(

Sorry, Noobs. No help here.

Thanks! I'm not so much looking at the answer as to whether there is a link, but more like what steps would you take next to find out _why_ certain currencies work well, and others don't? My distribution was just a guess as to what could be related. It does seem to be sort of related but I don't even know how to verify that, to be honest!

And to answer your question, I just posted all of them in random order, no distinction on ordering. The forum software did not let me upload more than 10 per post so I had to break them out :)
 
I've got a swing trading strategy I've been working on that I hypothesized should work, and it seems to work in backtests on certain currencies. I've also traded it manually a few times to get a feel for it. The problem is that it doesn't work on all currencies and I don't know how to determine when to trade a currency with this strategy.

I began looking into it from the perspective of distributions of various price-related data and found what appears to be some sort of a relation between cumulative returns and this distribution.

In the images that follow, the left chart is cumulative return (dark blue) vs price (light blue). The right chart is a price-related distribution. To me, there appears to be some sort of a pattern with the currencies where it does work, and currencies where it doesn't.

I don't understand how to determine what really affects it.

Note: these results are without leverage. I would likely do 5x leverage in live trading.

Based on comments from others on this site, I am considering using deep learning to see if there is a way to back out a relationship that I don't know exists but I'm not sure I want to invest the time TBH.

What next steps would you take here?

View attachment 202754 View attachment 202755 View attachment 202756 View attachment 202757 View attachment 202758 View attachment 202759 View attachment 202760 View attachment 202761 View attachment 202762 View attachment 202763

How do you know the 'works / doesn't work' is pure chance?

What is the annualised sharpe ratio of the best and worst currency, and how many years does the backtest last for?

GAT
 
How do you know the 'works / doesn't work' is pure chance?

What is the annualised sharpe ratio of the best and worst currency, and how many years does the backtest last for?

GAT

How do I know it *is* or *isn't* pure chance? I am 99% sure that it is pure chance as usual.

Backtest is 10 years, but I use that just for validation, hypothesis was tested on trailing 1 year. No sharpe ratio yet, currently working on reshaping the distributions and propagating that back to the prices to see if that makes a difference.

Like all of the other stuff I've posted here I'm sure it won't work!!!
 
How do I know it *is* or *isn't* pure chance? I am 99% sure that it is pure chance as usual.

Backtest is 10 years, but I use that just for validation, hypothesis was tested on trailing 1 year. No sharpe ratio yet, currently working on reshaping the distributions and propagating that back to the prices to see if that makes a difference.

Like all of the other stuff I've posted here I'm sure it won't work!!!

I meant chance in a statistical sense.

What I meant was, are the returns of the worst and best currency statistically different? If not then you should just trade them all and not worry about why one works or doesn't.

GAT
 
Ho-lee-fuck-ing-shit... Rearranging the distributions and propagating the transform back to the prices does the right thing.

Which means I'm definitely doing it wrong lol.

Before:

gbpusd-png.202761


After:

upload_2019-5-17_11-24-52.png
 
Sadly I can't wholesale apply the transform (gives worse results than before) which means I have to identify the currency's distribution first, then transform only that one. Why? Who the fuck knows ...

So now I'm into overfitting territory and will have to pick up Robert's book again. FML.
 
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