a short call ladder

I love these "sure wins"!

What you have is a short call vertical with an extra OTM long call. Your maximum loss at expiry occures if the stock is between the two long strikes (40 and 45). Sure it looks like a "sure win" right now, but as the time progresses the loss in the middle will be clearly visible. Also a drop in volatility will hurt you.

Essentially, it's a call backspread with the two long calls separated.
 
Quote from gkishot:

Isn't the PnL chart taken at expiration date?

The fact that lines are smooth tells me that it's not at expiration. Besides, I don't need a graph to know what the position is and what the risks are.
 
Quote from MTE:

The fact that lines are smooth tells me that it's not at expiration. Besides, I don't need a graph to know what the position is and what the risks are.

In this case no wonder the OP thought that this is a risk-free trade since the PnL chart shown is not taken at expiration but on some who knows what day.
 
Quote from gkishot:

In this case no wonder the OP thought that this is a risk-free trade since the PnL chart shown is not taken at expiration but on some who knows what day.

My point exactly.
 
Quote from gkishot:

In this case no wonder the OP thought that this is a risk-free trade since the PnL chart shown is not taken at expiration but on some who knows what day.
It's a graph of the position today. Net credit of $3.03 with a spread risk of 5 pts so maximum loss b/t 35 and 40 is $1.97

It's not quite risk free. :eek:
 
Quote from spindr0:

It's a graph of the position today. Net credit of $3.03 with a spread risk of 5 pts so maximum loss b/t 35 and 40 is $1.97

It's not quite risk free. :eek:

Max loss is between 40 and 45, not 35 and 40.
 
Quote from 0008:

from the chart it seems this trade is a sure win

what is the trap?

it is a short call ladder


The 'trap' is believing your first sentence has any basis in reality.

Mark
 
Quote from MTE:

Max loss is between 40 and 45, not 35 and 40.
OOPS, my bad!

Since I have your attention, here's another loony question (g).

I'm gamma scalping stock against ATM long puts. Is there any advantage to using puts a strike ITM? They have a higher delta and less time premium so with those ITM, less TP would be paid out and decay would affect the position less.

OTOH, with fewer ITM puts, the ITM risk graph isn't the standard balanced V. I know I'm missing something but I can't put my finger on it.
 
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