Quote from failed_trad3r:
I dont speak latin. Im talking about a debt bubble, as in, total aggregrate debt. Federal + rest ( housing creditcards, stock margin etc). This happened in 1920's huge debt bubble. For this exists data.
But your really just saying anecdote. How do you prove tax evasion? By definition it's secret. For this exist no data.
Only thing fact u use is regulations went up, for which exist data.
1) You said there was a huge debt bubble from 1896-1932. That is patently false except for the last few years of that period.
2) The tax code was very different pre-'86. No one can deny this. There were legal loopholes that no longer exist and tax evasion was easier. This means charts of marginal tax rates from 1935-1985 (or whatever) that imply some great benefit for today are an apples-to-oranges comparison. The "data" argument goes to your court. We don't know what "the ultra rich" actually paid back then, but it was much less than the top rates in most cases. Without controlling for other factors (i.e., much higher non-Federal taxes, a much less regulated society, thousands of other differences), you can't draw a meaningful conclusion.
Also, that period was far from the "glory days." The Great Depression (which was handled much differently than prior depressions...and lasted much longer), the 1970s stagflation (considered impossible by Keynesians--they had to change their theories), no growth in the stock market from 1929-1954 or 1966-1982.
3) Instead of trolling and being a post whore here, it would do you a world of good to learn other things. Logical fallacies would be a great start. A limited grasp of Latin wouldn't hurt, though you should shore up on your English spelling and grammar first.
