Quote from ShoeshineBoy:
I agree with you that the Old Testament is largely silent about the afterlife, but if you are saying that it is entirely devoid of such references, I can't see that. There are many casual references such as
"Who knows the spirit of the sons of men, which goes upward, and the spirit of the animal, which goes down to the earth?" (Eccl 3:22)
"For man goes to his eternal home and the mourners go about the streets. Remember your Creator before the silver cord is loosed..." (Eccl 12:6)
"...and the spirit will return to God who gave it." (Eccl 12:7)
There were enough such passages that in the time of Jesus the dominant Jewish sect believed in an afterlife. I don't see how your reference can say that it crept into Jewish thought centuries AD...
Well, that's what the reference books say. Platonian philosophy crept into late Hebrew and late Christian theology. The leading religious sects at the time of Jesus were being hyper-criticized by Jesus, so I think the Bible paints a picture that these religious leaders were on the wrong side of the market, so to speak
The Hebrew scriptures are quiet about an afterlife, as you've pointed out, because it wasn't their belief that people survived death at all. But the question you raise is if the passages you cited teach that there is an afterlife, esp. is there a surviving-death immortal soul that travels to heaven at the time of the person's death? Let's look at those passages.
In Ecc 12:7, the Hebrew word translated as "spirit" is "ruach", not the same as the Hebrew word used for "soul". The spirit is not the soul. It's a different thing. You'll note that other passages refer to both spirit and soul, obviously inferring a distinction between the two (Heb 4:12, for example). In Hebrew, "Ruach" means air, breath, wind, power, animation. A different definition that that for soul, or "nephesh". "Ruach" is a force, not a bodiless person. It's what the Bible says God "breathed" into Adam to make Adam *become* a living soul (Gen 2:7). What it doesn't say is that God blew a "soul" into Adam's nostrils to create in him an embodied "spirit", which would have been more in harmony with the thought that man has an immortal soul, if that were what scripture taught.
The same word "ruach" is applied to both animals and people in Eccl 3:22, as you've noted. The distinction that passage makes however is that after death there is a prospect that does not apply to animals, who otherwise share this same ruach, this same life animation with mankind. But does that necessarily mean an immortal soul is at work and flies off to heaven? Consider other passages that speak of when a person dies and their ruach, such as Ps 146:4. "His spirit ("ruach") goes out... in that day his thoughts do perish (Ps 146:4). A person's thoughts, their likes, dislikes, memories, et al, these important things that make a person a person, perish, they do not continue in another realm. If the person's thoughts perish when he loses his spirit/ruach/life animation, then obviously if there were a bodiless spirit creature surviving the death, according to this scripture, it wouldn't be the person anymore, it would be a vegetable. This does not harmonize with an immortal soul concept.
What then is meant by declaring that the ruach "goes upward" if there is not a travelling immaterial soul? I'd suggest that rather than try to justify a premise that is not stated anywhere in scripture, consider instead the very plainly stated multiple scriptures that speak of the Judeo-Christian premise that God will remember the dead in the resurrection. This promise of a later renewal back to life (not a promise of surviving the death experience ) is not accorded to dead animals but only to mankind, and hence the distinction between the two eventualities ("upward and downward") even though both humans and animals share the same "one spirit" (Ecc 3:19). In fact, doesn't that same passage plainly state that "all are returning to the dust" when they die?
So then what can be meant by "his spirit ("ruach") returns to God who gave it?" When Christ was dying, it's written in Luke 23:46 that he cried out "Father, into your hands I entrust my spirit, and when he had said this, he died." Well now, the bible plainly states that Jesus didn't go to heaven right then and there, in fact, that he was in "hell" for 3 days following his death, and resurrected only after that back to life on earth. Further, that he didn't ascend into the heavens until some 40 days later. So if his "spirit" didn't return to God at the time of his death, what did he mean? In complete accordance with the other scriptures mentioned herein, wasn't he saying that he entrusted his "ruach", his life animation, his opportunity to be resurrected and his only chance of life again, to be in the hands of his Father (God)? You quoted the passage that said God is the 'giver' of the spirit. It's evidently his to give. Likewise, its "return" to God also denotes that this life force belongs to him and Jesus' death cry underscores his hope and the theological point that the prospect of life returns to God who has promised to give this 'life breath' (as the Catholic New Amsterdam Bible translates 'ruach') to the dead, invigorating them with life again.
Man, I should've been a preacher. Open a little storefront church and ask for donations, lol. Now can I go back to trading?
PS "eternal home" is a reference about going to the grave ("sheol"), not to heaven. Compare Ecc 9:10.