As a weeeee little boy, I still remember day after day the TV was full of the horror of the market-crash of 87.
I had long forgotten most of that, until recently I was watching a podcast by TastyTrade, and Sosnoff was talking about how skew didn't occur until the crash of 1987. Since then it existed because people have been terrorized of the reactions that the market can make (it wasn't believed before then that such a drastic move could happen so suddenly).
However, in an old book I am reading, (published 1981), the author already talks about skew (though he doesn't use that word). He even explains the reasoning for this premium difference between PUTs vs CALLs and uses the principle that stocks can have unlimited price highs, yet are capped at 0 on the bottom.
Maybe I'm over-simplifying this and misunderstood... but a few times now I'm seeing other authors/youtubers, etc, saying there was no such thing as skew/smile/etc before 1987...
I guess I'm just getting more confused the more I look into this?
I had long forgotten most of that, until recently I was watching a podcast by TastyTrade, and Sosnoff was talking about how skew didn't occur until the crash of 1987. Since then it existed because people have been terrorized of the reactions that the market can make (it wasn't believed before then that such a drastic move could happen so suddenly).
However, in an old book I am reading, (published 1981), the author already talks about skew (though he doesn't use that word). He even explains the reasoning for this premium difference between PUTs vs CALLs and uses the principle that stocks can have unlimited price highs, yet are capped at 0 on the bottom.
Maybe I'm over-simplifying this and misunderstood... but a few times now I'm seeing other authors/youtubers, etc, saying there was no such thing as skew/smile/etc before 1987...
I guess I'm just getting more confused the more I look into this?