I'm trying to understand this 1%-2% risk of total capital rule that most traders follow. The way I'm thinking of it can't be correct, unless we all are starting with several hundred thousand to spare. I'll explain why.
Say you have 5k in your unmargined account. 1% of 5k is only $50. What the hell are you going to do with that. Even at 100k were only talking about 1k per trade. This can't be the way people trade.
If not then how do we arrive at 1% of total capital risk? Put 2k on a trade, buy X amount of shares and cut your losses at the 1% mark?
Example:
Buy 2k of stock AB at $20 a share=100 shares.
5k total capital at risk so 1% is $50.
Put your stop loss at $19.50 on stock AB.
Obviously there is slippage and trade costs, but we won't count that to make things easier right now. Is this correct?
If it dropped to $19.50 I would be out only 1% of my 5k total capital at risk. Not including costs of course so really more than 1%.
If that is the case how much do you put in a trade? On a small account like $5000 I would think even 1k or 20% seems like alot.
Say you have 5k in your unmargined account. 1% of 5k is only $50. What the hell are you going to do with that. Even at 100k were only talking about 1k per trade. This can't be the way people trade.
If not then how do we arrive at 1% of total capital risk? Put 2k on a trade, buy X amount of shares and cut your losses at the 1% mark?
Example:
Buy 2k of stock AB at $20 a share=100 shares.
5k total capital at risk so 1% is $50.
Put your stop loss at $19.50 on stock AB.
Obviously there is slippage and trade costs, but we won't count that to make things easier right now. Is this correct?
If it dropped to $19.50 I would be out only 1% of my 5k total capital at risk. Not including costs of course so really more than 1%.
If that is the case how much do you put in a trade? On a small account like $5000 I would think even 1k or 20% seems like alot.