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Yes, though I am talking about stocks only, I should have made that clear. I now realise that the AVWAP is just a VWAP that has been influenced by some major event, and this means that this high volume event (the anchor) will influence the weighted average price of the stock going forward. So...

I originally thought VWAP was just one indicator on it's own. .But recently I've discovered that there's VWAP, Anchored VWAP, and MVWAP. When traders refer to VWAP, which one are they referring to? On Yahoo finance if I try to use the VWAP indicator, it provides standard deviation envelopes...

Can anyone recommend some decent books on trading the order flow? Thanks

This still doesn't address the question. The explanation defined in textbooks and around the web is that ad Inflation erodes the purchasing power of the USD, then it takes more USD to buy gold. That doesn't make sense. However. If you ate buying Gold from another party, they might not want...

Just to clarify. Are you saying that Gold is valued only off the inflation adjusted value of the US Dollar? If not, then why did the gold price increase?

I’m trying to understand how Gold is a good inflation hedge. Here’s why. If Gold is priced in USD and inflation in the US erodes the purchasing power of the USD, then surely if Gold is priced in USD then wouldn’t gold be cheaper to buy? For example, if the Gold Price is $100 and inflation...

Either. The point is, the USD you receive had to come from somewhere. Currency swaps, as you are no doubt aware, are OTC. My only take on this is that you are tapping into the cash savings / reserves of various corporates, reserve banks, or funds of various types. I'm not sure why...

If cross currency basis indicates that USD funding through swaps costs more than it costs to borrow USD in the money market directly, and this is supposed to show a USD shortsge, then why haven't the money markets for USD become more expensive to borrow in as well? Are there two different...

Good suggestion. I like the thinking behind this.

A big thanks for this! This is exactly the kind of thing I am looking for. I really appreciate the time you have taken add to this thread! I am in Southeast Asia at the moment but I will download and print that off at read it. As previously mentioned, a better understanding of the tools...

Thanks for the effort on this post I think it makes a great contribution to the thread! I certainly agree with your views on this as i had never really looked into why we use what we use in the moving average time frames. I truly believe that understanding is the key, or you just can't...

Thanks for the funny posts! A few serious answers, one half serious, the others had me in tears. I suppose I should now ask, if for example the 20 day MA is based on the trading days in a month (remember it's trailing), then how is a month's worth of trading days significant? It could well...

I was wondering if anybody had come across some resources or books explaining the significance of the different and more popular moving average periods? For example what is the significance of 20 days when we are using the 20 day moving average why not 22 days why not 30? Or another example...

yes that's right, as mentioned, I did say that I should have been asking about dark pools. But I got half my answer anyway. So I now know that the broker doesn't sell on anything and thus, I can rule them out of this question. Dark pools and their transfer of ownership to the client is...

Thanks for your reply Robert. I think I'm orientating this question towards the public client / broker process, when I should be asking about institutional client / institutional broker processes. What I'm trying to establish possibly has more to do with Dark Pools than anything else. That's...

If I place an order for a specific amount of a certain stock with a broker and ask them to purchase them for me, how do they then transfer ownership to me after they have bought them? Do they simply use the stock transfer method, treating the stock as a gift? OR Do they short sell them to you...

Does anyone have any clue about what I've asked above?

"markers" ??

On of the Dow Theory proponents (I think it was Rhea) talks about using value markers such as Return on Investment to determine market tops and bottoms. What markers is he actually talking about? I have heard that the reciprocal of the P/E ration is sometimes used (earnings yield). But what...

Thanks for that! Haha.. Typo. Think I meant to write any :sneaky: