just started using Orats and pretty happy so far. Support is great and I did ask them but no reply on this question so could anyone give me an idea who is more skilled with orats?
having a little difficulty with Orats use of implied volatility to look at earnings moves. Likely my ignorance, but the normal options models expect continuous trading/pricing, while event oriented trading should rely on something like a jump-diffusion model, or the like.
If you watch any volatile stock’s IV around earnings, IV rises into the event and falls dramatically immediately after. This fall does not tell you if you will/did make money or lose money from the event. You could be short the straddle, have the IV drop dramatically after earnings and still lose your shirt based on the delta effect (price movement.).
Can anyone explain why Orats method works or why Orats IV should be looked at for an event (like earnings.).
AND question 2
Why use the ITM call prices to determine volatility?
reading through the docs I see
Interpolated Implied Volatilities At Various Deltas
Orats present the constant maturity implied volatilities at various delta levels in addition to at-the-money 50 delta: The 5, 25, 75 and 95 call delta IVs are also presented.
They are wide markets that theoretically should be the same as the put IV (with the exception of early exercise premium for American options, Why not use the OTM IV’s across the spectrum of prices?
having a little difficulty with Orats use of implied volatility to look at earnings moves. Likely my ignorance, but the normal options models expect continuous trading/pricing, while event oriented trading should rely on something like a jump-diffusion model, or the like.
If you watch any volatile stock’s IV around earnings, IV rises into the event and falls dramatically immediately after. This fall does not tell you if you will/did make money or lose money from the event. You could be short the straddle, have the IV drop dramatically after earnings and still lose your shirt based on the delta effect (price movement.).
Can anyone explain why Orats method works or why Orats IV should be looked at for an event (like earnings.).
AND question 2
Why use the ITM call prices to determine volatility?
reading through the docs I see
Interpolated Implied Volatilities At Various Deltas
Orats present the constant maturity implied volatilities at various delta levels in addition to at-the-money 50 delta: The 5, 25, 75 and 95 call delta IVs are also presented.
They are wide markets that theoretically should be the same as the put IV (with the exception of early exercise premium for American options, Why not use the OTM IV’s across the spectrum of prices?