Thank you. Do you know what the logic of the latter is?
Probably shows that the probability that the stock will become full-paid is quite high even though it was bought on margin given the high market value
Thank you. Do you know what the logic of the latter is?
Not true.
I saw the poster's link. I did not post the IB link. then I read the link from a poster. I posted the words in the IB link because it was obvious that one poster misinterpreted what was in the link and the other person probably never read the requirements.
Example: 1 million USD invested in stocks fully paid. 1 million USD borrowed on margin invested in stocks.
In this case the ratio is 200% correct? So since the ratio is above 140%, I am allowed to lend out the stocks bought on margin?
Ok, so for it to be 140%, the stocks bought for the USD 1 million borrowed funds, must increase to 1.4 million USD, before they can be loaned out. Is that how you would interpret it?In this case, the $1 million USD that's invested in stock that's fully paid would be able to be loaned out. Whether the $1 million USD worth of stocks that's bought on margin can be loaned out would depend on whether the market value of the stock is 140% of the margin debit balance which I would take it is the amount you borrowed to buy the stock. This is how I understand it.
Ok, so for it to be 140%, the stocks bought for the USD 1 million borrowed funds, must increase to 1.4 million USD, before they can be loaned out. Is that how you would interpret it?
So the margin debit balance refers to the total amount of money that you've borrowed from your broker to purchase securities on margin.
Example: 1 million USD invested in stocks fully paid. 1 million USD borrowed on margin invested in stocks.
In this case the ratio is 100% or 200%?