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Let me clarify. When the seller buys real stock someone from the open market loses the real stock and hence the dividend. Who does the company pay the dividend to? Do they somehow line everything up with that initial guy who exercised the calls?

If a person sells uncovered calls and they get exercised the day before ex-dividend, although he will only be notified later of the assignment, he is obligated to pay for a "substitute payment" or "manufactured payment" or "dividend in lieu" equal to the amount of the dividend out of his own...

I am almost sure most of that lag time was merely the reporting back to you the trade went through.

It was not necessary to call in the end. I sent this to 2 managers in the company and copied in customer support: "It seems to me that "support" may not be getting the emails I have been sending to them for a wire request." I then got quick help.

I guess you guys are right; it still says to me something though about the ethics of the company.

Do brokers do such things on purpose? If I wouldnt follow through could a broker actually totally ignore it?

If you are about to select a broker, you can PM me and I can tell you if it's him. Otherwise, I don't want my personal experience to destroy their reputation. I just need them to respond to me.

I sent out the wire transfer request before the opening on Thursday and nothing happened on Thursday or Friday, emailed them before the opening and during the day today, and they are ignoring the emails as well as the request. Please advise.

Look how SIRI went down from about $2.40 when I posted this, to $2.18 now, just a few trading days later...

I think the majority of traders believe one can really squeeze the shorts and they lose, but it seems people have started to become more alert to the other side... It would be nice to have more response.

For the sake of more clarity... One side: This is the rare short squeeze, and the more buying, the more the shorts will lose, till the point they will have no choice but to cover at higher and higher prices? Other side: All the shorts have to do (and probably that is what's happening) is...

you did not bring down the middle case, i.e. if he puts in the sell order which is getting partial fills while he simultaneously is continuing to get partial buys. One order to buy is placed and one to close, but the fills are occurring one at a time.

A) If I had a partial fill (e.g. 30 options) for an order of 100 options, and start to close out the 30 options at the ask price B) The options at the ask price are being bought one option at a time, and they are also selling me at the remaining bid one option at a time, will this count as...

No need. But where do you get the info?

Can you bring anything to prove this? (Note: it seems what I found may be UK information)

The following link seems to be saying it's the same trade (see specifically the summary chart)... http://www.desktoplawyer.net/dtl/index.cfm?event=base:article&node=A76058B76058D76528

Without electing trader status, a person can still deduct his losses without the $3k limit versus future trading gains (as the $3k only applies to personal income). Does this mean versus ANY future trading gains? Or only versus future trading gains on the same security where the loss occurred?

Also, with IB, you pay a lot on exchange fees, even when using smart route, and even when trying to buy at bid--as it will reroute to e.g. PSE to fill your order as if you are buying at ask.

If you are trying to buy at bid, or between bid and ask, or at ask but with a penny spread then price improvement with IB does nothing for you. If you are trying to buy at a bigger spread then it would seem IB does do something. However, you start with a hurdle of $.70 per contract (for...

Just bought at ask using PSE with IB in a situation where the counterparty was not on PSE to see what would happen the other way. My order went through on PSE. How? Did the counterparty not have smart route? If yes, why didn't IB earn exchange fees on my behalf?