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U kidding, right!? A collar is a synthetic bull put spread which is a synthetic bull call spread, which is a synthetic collar and so on and so forth... It's just a matter of how you dissect the position.

In US you can't be both on the bid and on the ask side in options. The the second order will not be accepted. This is a market maker's privilege.

The reason that most stocks have strike increments of 2.5, 5 and etc is because there's not enough liquidity to warrant lower increments, with ETFs, on the other hand, the demand for options is high hence the liquidity is high and therefore it becomes feasible to have strike price increments of 1.

Actually, it is the ATM strike that has the highest vega. Shorter term options have lower vegas than longer term options so something like a near-term vertical spread would neutralize the vega.

Options on US stocks are currently listed on 6 options exchanges - CBOE, ISE, BOX, PHLX, AMEX, PSE. The options are not tied to a single specific exhange (with some exceptions for index options) so it doesn't really matter where you make the trade, in other words, you trade where the best price...

Higher premium does mean greater volatility, but premium also depends on expiration and stock price. An IV chart gives you a better picture of what happened to option premiums in the past. For example, you may find an option with huge premium and when you look at IV you find that the option is...

1 standard deviation=68% probability under a normal probability distribution curve.

Well, to be more exact it would be 50*sqrt(36/365)=15.7%. If you use calendar days to expiry you need to use calendar days in a year (so in your equation it would be 50/19*sqrt(36)). And it's 67% probability.

Greater probability of moving translates into higher premium - it's all proportional, there's no free lunch. Implied volatility indicates only expected volatility (i.e. range of prices) not direction! I don't think you can get away with a shortcut 101 crash course in implied volatility...

This is a Jan option so it has 36 days to expiry.

Yes, the assumption is that they are the same strike and the same expiry. You cannot say that the 2.65 is more bloated, as it is proportional to higher IV that the second stock is trading at. Just by looking at the two premiums you cannot say which one is more bloated. Well, you could if you...

No way it was yesterday's close example. That call has been trading below 0.35 since October. In any case, here's an example for you. Say you got two stocks, both at the same price. The equivalent calls are trading at 1.20 and at 2.65. Which one is more bloated? The first one or the...

Please don't be offended, but may I suggest a book on options, such as "Option Volatility and Pricing" by Natenberg. It seems that you don't really understand the concept of volatility in options. Hence, you don't see the value in it.

I don't see CVC Dec 30 call trading at 1.95, it's 0 bid 0.05 ask. As myself and OP mentioned you need to look at IV from a relative perspective, that is relative to historical (aka statistical volatility) and/or past implied volatility levels.

Well, how would you know that the option premium is bloated? What are you gonna compare it to? IV is calculated by taking the market option premium and then reversing an option pricing model to get the volatility. In option pricing the only unknown variable is the volatility, all others are...

The most important thing here is that the opening value for the index has nothing to do with the final settlement value, cause the settlement value is calculated based on the opening print for each individual stock in the index.

Sure it is doable. Unrealistic!? This guy is unrealistic:D

Thinkorswim has it as well.

Yes, there're some proposals to switch to risk-based margining, similar to SPAN.

Only 1,455%!? Are you kidding? Unless you're making 409,500% per year it's not worth the effort.