I get the impression so far that spikes in the S&P are inversely correlated to spikes in the EUR/USD
like the one at 12:45
Is this the general rule of thumb for spike moves ?
I have never seen a vendor doing this, let me know if you find one. (Imagine the credibility a vendor would gain from a profitable independently verified track record)
Why they don't do that ?> nothing to prove
It makes sense ,no ?
I believe I will have a latency advantage for orders resting on the software of the computer,like MIT orders
What delay would I have for orders sent from my remote desktop ?
Do you see schadenfreude as a virtue? How about prejudice?
I lost total faith in these quant guys and the level of their 'genius' when one said the pattern of events that took place which blew them out of the water should only happen once every 10,000 years.Ridiculous,and frankly arrogant...