Obviously I've triggered you by my reference to Sossnoff and TT crew long term "haters" such as yourself ... will just say I think your "facts" are (and have been) fairly well debated in the past and I don't have any special insight into the validity of any of them. Nor do I believe you have...
I actually knew you were one of the “haters”, Not sure I have the desire to debate your points which I’ve (and you I know) seen mentioned and counter-pointed many times in past.... Just wanted to explain that one strangle trade the OP asked about.... Happy Trading!
I believe it’s that he’s too pig headed to change due to his personal history and wealth situation... If he indeed trades personally different (and esp. if it’s indeed obvious to anyone) than the TT “mechanics” suggest, then that’s a plus to me and indicative that he is more...
You are missing that this specific trade was what Jim sets up as a longer DTE strangle using the pre earnings IV pump only as somewhat extra juice, but not really an “earnings Trade”. most of thier strangle philosophy involves avoiding known effects of such binary events.
I think you will never be charged margin loan interest for option trades because options are non-marginable and can not be bought/sold using margin. At least at TDA
Heres a book I liked (btw; the "website" mentioned hasn't been updated in a long time i think).
How to Price and Trade Options: Identify, Analyze, and Execute the Best Trade Probabilities, + Website (Bloomberg Financial) 1st Edition
by Al Sherbin
May not matter, but You can change some of the modeling options in ToS (BS, binomial, berklystensly,, Volatility smile vs, individual IV vs uniform vol across strikes).
If one could predict w/100% accuracy, true they could soon own the whole world. If one predicted with any level of accuracy, they can profit to some extent (can profit if only lucky as well). Use of any model is use of prediction (i.e. Future will be similar to past) assuming model is based on...
Who is this?, AFAIK, the only TT indicator is IV Rank ( or better "percentile"), and perhaps percent underlying change w/in 2 weeks, and perhaps historical vol increasing/decreasing. I'd be interested to know what else there is...
I'm curious what change you're referring to? Is it the use of system P&L "expectation" vs. avg. trade P&L (which I'm guessing can still be a long term negative net expectation???). Something I've been pondering...
In the case of selling strangles (as the study), Isn't the "premium" (I.e. Sum of options extrinsic + intrinsic value) all "theta" (I.e. Extrinsic value decay)? Stated another way, since the OTM option premium sold is all extrinsic and theta is extrinsic decay, I don't understand the...