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Time will tell, will keep you updated.

This is what I mean when I say distorted market. A $75 real value can't possibly be lower then $65 real value. Can the market be distorted for a few minutes "and not have the correct price"? (your quote) yes. Does it mean that the account or the broker is at risk of loosing more then the debit...

If the $75 call is more expensive then the $65 call that would create arbirtage, wouldn't it?

Which broker do you use & what's your issue?

Disagree, there is no risk that the $65 call should trade for "less" then the $75 call when both have the same expiration (unless for a few min if the market is distorted). So there is no risk for the broker of the spread turning negative. "The broker closing out the position in an obviosly...

Can you explain what the risk is when the calls are far out of the money & not close to expiration? Bases on the OCC the max risk is the debit paid.

Yes, same currency.

Can't go into much details now. I will try to get some compensation from broker (atleast for the comissions)and will keep you guys updated.

Guost this is what you wrote last year, did you changed your mind since..? Quote. There is no risk beyond the premium paid in a debit spread. Just like there is no risk beyond the price paid for a share. If someone sells MSFT for -$100 per share, should IB liquidate all MSFT longs?

Very interesting what you saying. That's risky stuff.

That's news to me, that a poistion can be liquidated even when there is no margin involved. So if you buy a stock with cash & you write a covered call and the options market goes crazy, and the ask on the call becomes more expensive for a few minutes would you get a margin call? That's not what...

I meant So there was zero "risk" for the broker & for the account

There was no assignment risk, because both options where far out of the money. So there was zero for the broker & for the account.

We are talking about a "debit" spread, no leverage, everything paid in cash with some cash left in the account. I can't see any risk for the broker with a debit spread that out of the money.

Do you agree with others here that the broker was wrong and I should go for arbitration?

All the options where fully covered with zero margin requirment and zero risk besides the debit paid, however the volatile market just skewed the pricing. What's wrong with that sitiuation?

Again there was nothing "nothing" else in the account besides the spread. My broker says that since the market was volatile the price of the short leg at that moment became more expensive then the long leg making the acount negative. I don't want to go into any details now because my point here...

Thanks for the link. In that link the person had forex positions, while in my sitiuation there was "no other positions". Which brings back the question does that sound right, any option experts here that can answer?

Not ready to go into much details yet about my sitiuation, Just trying to find out if it makes sense or not.

Thanks for the refrence. I have read it & it seems that in that case the account had forex position as well. in my case there was no other positions. Is that the way it should work?