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It is either caused by dividend or interest rate. I looked at the CME FOMC tool but I think nothing had really changed in rate hike probability?

Well I have used this calculators long ago. That's why I always question people when they bring up "terrible" Nikkei's return. Nikkei is actually go up more than S&P when both are denominated with yen or dollar.

No, but the bubble only last a couple of years. You also have periods after the crash when the dividend more than 2%. If you have the dividend data I would be glad to update my calculation. Add in national pension (pay about 25% of an average guy salary) and stock holder benefits (can yield...

I must admit I overestimate how much a Japanese earn in the 60s and 70s. If the salary figure is correct then yeah they would have a tough time.

In Japan if you go through the trouble to buy that basket of stock in the index (well, before futures and etf are invented I suppose), you actually get many shareholder benefits which is sort of monetary reward program for owning the stock. Which can yield about 1% on top of dividends...

The details lazily calculated (45 years working life, 30% saving rate, withdraw rate 3% of 1985 total net-worth + the dividend) Salary data here http://nbakki.hatenablog.com/entry/Changes_Wage-Workers_Salary_1950-2013 I don't have dividend details but I assume you will save up the dividends...

I already said Said investor have a wonderful time the first 30 years (874 points to 38915 points, 44x returns) and now whine about the 6 losing years (1983-1989) he had in 2009

You can't really be serious. The link you gave describe an investor who go all in at the peak and without any other contribution to his investment. Nicely done fear mongering with the starting date and completely ignore how an average guy put his money over 40-45 years.

Seriously you took it for granted? Do you know how expensive it is to live in big Cities in China? I would bet a software guy of the same quality would at least cost $450k if you can hire the same guy for $900k in the US.

Why are you making it so complicated. If you are bullish on the stock and want to receive credit, just use a credit put spread.

Writing a naked put has the same risk profile as writing a covered call. Do you see why?

With the OP definition of "risk fee" S&P 500 is risk free too. I mean with preferred share you have tons of interest risk and OP don't even recognize it.