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Please clarify your comment:

Same OPRA coding as the Weeklies: Here is a PUT opra: SPXW170131P2175 URL from CBOE from the initial launch: "http://www.cboeoptionshub.com/2014/05/29/new-sp-500-end-month-options-launch-july/" I don't have access to Bloomberg, so am unfamiliar with that! I primarily use TOS.

Yes! For example, examine the January 31, 2017 SPX series. This is last trading day of the month, and occurs on Tuesday, which is one of the EOM options! These are infrequent, since we now have the Monday, Wednesday, and Friday expirations, so they only seem odd when they occur on Tuesday or...

Note: EOM options expire on the last business day of the month. Looking for Year, month when they came into existence! Nevermind! Found it. July 2014!

Unclear why you made this post on this site. However, Quality processes were put in place in Japan back in the 80's and Europe joined subsequently with the ISO 9000 processes.

Please post supporting documentation that IV is NOT implied volatility and is the odd description you state? I'm aware of individual implied volatility (What I referenced by term IV, and what I though the author referenced), and option series implied volatility, and <n>DTE implied volatility...

Surely you jest! You state "IV is not the unknown ..." and you state "instantaneous volatility is the unknown ..." What do you thing "IV" is? Seems you may have had a long trying week!

OOM ?

Understood! Sometimes a little alcohol helps, but as we just witnessed, sometimes not so much! :-(

Expiry Price 105: -$75 <-- Initial Cash flow (no value at expiry) Expiry Price 110: $425 <-- 105 strike worth (110-105) $5 each, so $500-75; You referenced Delta in your PnL, which is not appropriate. This is at Expiration, so no Greeks exist (as IV has expired). The code snip I sent should...

Oh Crap! Sorry! Too many beers!

Try simplifying it further: Sell 1 Call - Strike 105 at 1.00 Underlying will close at 100 on expiration. What is the profit or loss?

Initial Credit == $50 (100 from Short, -$50 from the Long); CashFlow=$50. Expiration, Long is worthless. Short underwater. PositionValue @ Expiration = (100 - 105)X 1 X 100= -$500; PnL=-$500+$50== -$450;

From Wikipedia: The seller (or "writer") is obligated to sell the commodity or financial instrument to the buyer if the buyer so decides. Strike price: this is the price at which you can buy the stock (if you have bought a call option) or the price at which you must sell your stock (if you have...

BTW: For my sanity on tracking positions, I use the following simple algorithm. PnL=CurrentPositionValue+CashFlow; Where CashFlow=SUM of all prior transactions with commissions if appropriate; So in your case, the PnL @ Expiry: -1000 {PositionValue} + (-75){CashFlow};

No! For this 1st case of @ Expiration the underlying price is $105. Do you agree that the 105 Strike Call and the 115 strike Call positions are worthless? If so, then only remaining thing to consider is the 110 Strike short position, correct? For that position you owe the difference in the...

For the first case you mention: Price at Expiration == $105. (Equal to the 105 Strike) You are short the 110, so you owe the difference! You owe (110-105) X 2 Contracts X 100 shares/Contract => Cost to you of $1000. Add your initial cost of $75 for a total Cost of $1075. The 105 strike and...

The simple spreadsheet used above.

Below I think I am addressing your example: Initial position entry cost, excluding commissions is $-75.00 Let me know if you spot a mistake. No commissions are addressed, and trade examined at Expiration.

Then Delta is N/A; Look at position value at expiration, then merely add that to the initial position cost. (At Expiration, IV is zero, only value is Intrinsic, calculation is simple)