Let me clarify.
When the seller buys real stock someone from the open market loses the real stock and hence the dividend. Who does the company pay the dividend to? Do they somehow line everything up with that initial guy who exercised the calls?
If a person sells uncovered calls and they get exercised the day before ex-dividend, although he will only be notified later of the assignment, he is obligated to pay for a "substitute payment" or "manufactured payment" or "dividend in lieu" equal to the amount of the dividend out of his own...
It was not necessary to call in the end. I sent this to 2 managers in the company and copied in customer support:
"It seems to me that "support" may not be getting the emails I have been sending to them for a wire request."
I then got quick help.
If you are about to select a broker, you can PM me and I can tell you if it's him.
Otherwise, I don't want my personal experience to destroy their reputation.
I just need them to respond to me.
I sent out the wire transfer request before the opening on Thursday and nothing happened on Thursday or Friday, emailed them before the opening and during the day today, and they are ignoring the emails as well as the request. Please advise.
I think the majority of traders believe one can really squeeze the shorts and they lose, but it seems people have started to become more alert to the other side...
It would be nice to have more response.
For the sake of more clarity...
One side: This is the rare short squeeze, and the more buying, the more the shorts will lose, till the point they will have no choice but to cover at higher and higher prices?
Other side: All the shorts have to do (and probably that is what's happening) is...
you did not bring down the middle case, i.e. if he puts in the sell order which is getting partial fills while he simultaneously is continuing to get partial buys. One order to buy is placed and one to close, but the fills are occurring one at a time.