Recent content by martingale

Thanks! This makes sense. I suspected that it was a vendor error all along. It all but certain is. For FINRA trades, this vendor's timestamps start to differ from those of my other feeds, once before 9:30am or after 4pm. The further away from reg hours, the bigger the difference.

Thank you. This seems relevant. But I still probably need to call TRF to truly understand this. Appreciate your help and insight.

Here is another example, SPY on 2/23. This time, it is the original JSON under UTC time stamp: trades { SPY [ [0] { c [ [0] " ", [1] “T” ], i 79371804230221, p 432, s 150, t “2022-02-23T06:06:39.912Z”, x “D”, z “B” }, [1] { c [ [0] " ", [1] “T”, [2] “I” ], i 79371804167990, p 432, s 3, t...

I also considered the possibility that those Finra prints where left over from the previous day (w/ vendor messing things up and reporting on the next day). But that guess was proven false.

I already adjusted for the TZ of course. The prints shown are for NY times.

I have a data vendor (which does not provide any support) feeding me such SIP trade data for AAPL on 3/1/22: 013416.450|165|1|D|103|@~T~I 014749.102|165|1|D|93|@~T~I 015650.512|165|1|D|104|@~T~I 015840.911|164.7|1|D|99|@~T~I 020441.128|164.7|1|D|108|@~T~I 020616.368|165|5|D|92|@~T~I...

No problem Thanks for trying.

I did. As expected, they simply replied that it was already deprecated and no longer supported.

Does anyone know the source of such data, from such deprecated EClient API call (with reportType='ReportsOwnership')? void reqFundamentalData ( int reqId, Contract contract, string reportType, List< TagValue > fundamentalDataOptions ) It cannot be the Thompson-Reuters Ownership data, as...

When a dual-listed Canadian share is acquired and when the payout is in Canadian dollars, for a US investor, 1) Would she receive US dollars, or Canadian dollars? Is this broker-dependent? 2) If US dollars, does the broker set the exchange rate? 3) Is the cash payout subject to Canadian...

If tendering is the only way to elect the preferred form of payment (in case the default election sucks), then you may have to tender though.

Thanks for you reply. Then can a "traditional" (aka "one-step") merger offer target company shareholders an election of the merger consideration form? If so, would such an election still be regarded as a "tender"? https://www.wallstreetprep.com/knowledge/tender-offer-vs-merger/